These CISSP certification exam questions and answers will prove helpful to you in the assessment of the actual exam and the concepts covered here will give you an idea of the skills that will be assessed.
CISSP is one of the most popular cybersecurity certifications. A Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) is effective in the designing, implementation and management of a high quality Cybersecurity Program.
Domain : Security and Risk Management
Q1 : By encrypting data at rest (e.g., disk, database) to ensure it is always safeguarded, what principle of information security is being addressed?
A. Confidentiality
B. Availability
C. Integrity
D. Social Engineering
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Confidentiality of data is maintained by encrypting to prevent unauthorized access
Option A is correct. Principle of confidentiality mandates the usage of mechanisms (secrets) to safeguard the data from unauthorized access
Option B is incorrect. Principle of availability mandates reliable and timely access to systems and data is provided to authorized individuals
Option C is incorrect. Principle of integrity mandates, that data, and systems are accurate and reliable, and access is authorized
Option D is incorrect. Social engineering refers to methods/techniques used to retrieve sensitive information by deceiving someone
Domain : Security and Risk Management
Q2 : Mechanisms, procedures, or safeguards put in place to mitigate the impact of a vulnerability, is/are referred to as what?
A. Threat
B. Risk
C. Control
D. Exposure
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
A control is a safeguard implemented by the organization to mitigate exploitation of a vulnerability (or minimize the vulnerability)
Option A is incorrect. A threat is any danger across disciplines of people, processes, or technology, that may exploit a weakness (vulnerability) within an organization
Option B is incorrect. A risk is a likelihood that the vulnerability will be exploited and will impact the organization. The entity exploiting the vulnerability is called a threat actor.
Option C is correct. A control is a mechanism(s), or safeguard put in place by the organization(s) to mitigate damage from the threat actor exploiting the vulnerabilities
Option D is incorrect. Exposure refers to the organization being open to damage(s) from vulnerability, impacting operations, reputation, etc.
Domain : Security and Risk Management
Q3 : Which information security management best practice refers to controls to protect U.S. federal system developed by NIST (National Institute of Standards and Technology)
A. ISO/IEC 27000
B. CobiT
C. SP 800-53
D. CMMI (Capability Maturity Model)
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
SP 800-53 refers to a set of control statements directed by NIST to safeguard U.S. federal systems from internal and external threats.
Option A is incorrect. ISO/IEC 27000 refer to a series of internationally accepted practices that support the development and continuous management of ISMS (Information security management systems) across organizations to manage sensitive data
Option B is incorrect. CobiT refers to IT control objectives developed by ISACA (Information Systems Audit and Control Association), to evaluate control design and effectiveness
Option C is correct. SP 800-53 set of control requirements, as developed by NIST, direct implementation of rule/process/mechanism to safeguard U.S. federal systems from local and external threats. It further supports standardization of control expectations for organizations to use across industries
Option D is incorrect. The CMMI model directs improvement in organization behavior and approaches to improve product/process. It goes through five stages of maturity.
Domain : Security and Risk Management
Q4 : A data center based out of Chicago has an exposure factor of 30% if hit by an earthquake. If the data center is valued at $5,500,000 and the rate of annualized occurrence is 2.0, what is the annualized loss expectancy
A. $1,000,000
B. $1,300,000
C. $1,650,000
D. $3,300,000
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Annualized loss expectancy (ALE) = Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) X The annualized Rate of Return (ARO)
Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) = Asset Value ($5,500,000) X Exposure factor (30%) = $1,650,000
Annualized Loss Expectancy = $1,650,000 x 2 = $3,300,000
Option A is incorrect.
Option B is incorrect.
Option C is incorrect.
Option D is correct.
Domain : Security and Risk Management
Q5: What category of penetration testing provides the tester with some knowledge about the system and a high-level overview of the environment, while focusing on “Enumeration” as step 2 in the testing methodology?
A. Black Eye Testing
B. Partial knowledge testing
C. Zero-Knowledge Testing
D. Full Knowledge Testing
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Partial knowledge testing provides the tester with some understanding of the environment/system. All valid testing categories follow the same testing methodology.
Option A is incorrect. Black eye testing is not applicable to information security/penetration testing
Option B is correct. Partial knowledge testing is premised on understanding that the intruder will be able to obtain the basic knowledge of the system and environment using basic techniques. The tester is provided with a high-level overview of the environment, including IP addresses, contact info, etc., to define testing boundaries
Option C is incorrect. In Zero-knowledge testing, the tester starts from ground zero, with no knowledge of the system/environment
Option D is incorrect. In Full knowledge testing, all information and entry points are shared with the tester to focus on the level of damage that and be done.
Domain : Security and Risk Management
Q6 : Management of privileged access and associated administrative permissions, represents the implementation of which control category?
A. Physical controls
B. Logical (Technical) control
C. Administrative Control
D. Corrective Control
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
As part of administrative controls, management of privileged access to administer user and associated elevated permissions is important to safeguard against internal and external attacks
Option A is incorrect. Physical controls are measures such and turnstiles, fire suppression devices, doors, and guards, etc., that protect the physical environment from undue access
Option B is incorrect. Technical controls are rules/configurations that are embedded in physical hardware (chip) or software, to protect the network and sensitive data from unauthorized access
Option C is correct. Administrative controls are overarching organization role definitions, policies, and administrative responsibilities (including management of privileged access), that protect organization and data from attacks
Option D is incorrect. Corrective controls are reactive controls that focus on damage containment, and resolution for control weakness/absence.
Domain : Security and Risk Management
Q7 : You find a USB flash drive in the bathroom of your office, which looks legitimate. On using the device, a virus stored on the USB, accesses your email account, and infects the workstation and subsequently the entire network. What type of attack have you been a victim of?
A. Tailgating attack
B. Baiting Attack
C. Pretexting Attack
D. Phishing Attack
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Baiting attacks include the usage of infected devices (e.g., USB), which pose as legitimate devices and compromise servers and workstations.
Option A is incorrect. In tailgating attacks, the intruder seeks entry into restricted areas by simply walking behind a person with legitimate access.
Option B is correct. In a baiting attack, the attacker leaves infected devices in common areas such as bathrooms, elevators, etc., and awaits usage to compromise the victim’s workstation and network
Option C is incorrect. In a pretexting attack, the attacker performs some research to collect a user’s personal data and creates a fictitious scenario for the user to divulge maximum information
Option D is incorrect. A phishing attack uses email or infected websites, to pose as legitimate data sources to solicit sensitive data about the user or the organization
Domain : Asset Security
Q8 : When developing a data classification policy, which of the following is not considered for an organization
A. Who has access to Data?
B. How fast is data made available for consumption?
C. How is data secured?
D. What method be used to dispose the data?
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
The speed at which data is made available for consumption is not the primary driver in creating a data classification policy. The rest of them are, in addition to the length of retention, Encryption, and appropriate usage.
Option A is incorrect. It is important to understand who access to data will have, to formulate the right data accessibility protocol.
Option B is correct. The speed at which the data will be made to the consumers has no bearing in formulating the data policy
Option C is incorrect. Understanding the availability of data (general to all, or selected, or restricted), to users consuming the data pertinent to their roles is important in formulating a data policy
Option D is incorrect. Requirements to dispose data, specifically sensitive data must be considered when drafting the data policy. Elements of data remanence and relevant issues must be addressed.
Domain : Asset Security
Q9 : When countering data remanence, what technique uses alternating current reduced in amplitude from an initial high?
A. Overwriting
B. Degaussing
C. Encryption
D. Purging
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Degaussing is applied in data erasure through the usage of both Alternating Current (AC) and Direct Current (DC)
Option A is incorrect. Overwriting refers to overwriting existing data on storage media with new data often zeros. More advanced overwriting patterns have been developed since.
Option B is correct. Degaussing refers to the usage of electricity (both alternate and direct) to erase data from storage systems. Caution needs to be exercised as modern hard disk drives (HDDS) may be completely unusable and damage the storage system
Option C is incorrect. Pre- Encrypting data before it is stored on the media can mitigate concerns about data remanence.
Option D is incorrect. Purging enables the permanent removal of data from a specific location but cannot be reconstructed using known techniques. Depending on requirement data may be restored from the archive.
Domain : Asset Security
Q10 : When sharing or dissemination data, what is not an issue to be considered in relation to data/database access
A. The different types of data access needed and their appropriateness
B. Data privacy issues when collecting or sharing data
C. The complexity or format of the data used within the organization
D. Legal or jurisdictional issues specific to geography
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
The complexity or format of the data itself has little to no bearing on the issues to be addressed when sharing or disseminating data.
Option A is incorrect. Types of data access and its relevance are important in managing access issues
Option B is incorrect. Data privacy issues must be addressed when sharing / disseminating data
Option C is correct. The complexity or format of data in itself is not a criterion to be considered. Due diligence must be extended to all data formats.
Option D is incorrect. Legal or jurisdictional requirements must be taken into account, based on the location of data.
Domain : Asset Security
Q11 : Which security standard establishes guidelines and general principles for initiating, implementing, maintaining, and improving information security management in an organization
A. X.800-X.849
B. ISO/IEC 27001/27002
C. National Checklist Program (NCP)
D. X.509 – International Telecommunications Union (ITU)
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
The ISO/IEC 27000 series establishes guidelines and principles for strong information security management practice in an organization
Option A is incorrect. X.800 – X.849 establishes a security baseline specific to network and information security status
Option B is correct. ISO/IEC series establishes principles, and specifies requirements to establish, implement, operate, monitor and continuously review information security practice in relation to organizational strategy and risk.
Option C is incorrect. NCP directs low-level guidance on setting security configuration at OS and application tiers.
Option D is incorrect. X.509 is an International Telecommunication Union (ITU) standard defining the format of public key certificate
Domain : Asset Security
Q12 : Which of the following statements is true?
A. Link Encryption is performed by the service provider, and data is encrypted at the start of the communication channel with decryption at the remote end
B. End to End encryption is performed by the service provider user, with data encrypted at the start of the communication channel with decryption at the remote end
C. End to End encryption is performed by the end user, with data nodes requiring decryption along the path
D. End to End encryption is performed by end user, with data encrypted at the start of the communication channel with decryption at the remote end
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
In end-to-end encryption, the encryption is generally performed by the end user who encrypts data at the beginning of the communication, and then decrypts when the message reaches its remote end. Link Encryption is performed generally by the service provider and requires continuous decryption to further routing
Option A is incorrect.
Option B is incorrect.
Option C is incorrect.
Option D is correct.
Domain : Asset Security
Q13 : Getwell Inc. withholds market and product data/information that keeps it abreast it’s competition in a fiercely competitive health foods industry. What data classification must be associated with such data/information.
A. Private
B. Sensitive
C. Public
C. Confidential
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Data that provides organizations with a competitive edge are generally classified as “Confidential”.
Option A is incorrect. Private data refers to personal information for use within the company
Option B is incorrect. Data that requires special procedures to ensure data integrity is maintained and is protected from unauthorized access (e.g., Financial Statements)
Option C is incorrect. Data that can be made accessible to the public for consumption
Option D is correct. Confidential data is available for consumption within a company and if exposed can impact company operations. Trade Secrets, Programming Code, Competitor Analysis, etc. are examples of confidential data
Domain : Asset Security
Q14 : Which entity acts as an intermediary between an organization and cloud service providers, enabling local security policies (on-prem) to be applied to cloud models in their relevant context
A. Cloud Service Delivery Manager
B. Cloud Access Security Broker
C. SSAE 16 Third-Party Report
D. Cloud Compliance specialist
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
A Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) as the intermediary in ensuring on-prem security policies can be applied in cloud specific context, to ensure the organization operates within its risk appetite
Option A is incorrect. The cloud service delivery manager is primarily responsible to ensure that services in the cloud are designed and implemented in accordance with organizational requirements. In addition, he/she manages the financial and operational aspects of the implementation, including budget and resources.
Option B is correct. CASB can be a hardware or software device that acts as an intermediary between users and cloud providers. In addition to monitoring compliance against on-prem security policies, the service also addresses emerging threats from BYOD and Shadow-IT
Option C is incorrect. SSAE 18 SOC reports, provide assurance on the design and effectiveness of controls supporting financial processes outsourced to the third party.
Option D is incorrect. Cloud Compliance specialists work closely with security teams within an organization to ensure that cloud compliance requirements are met. If needed the specialist will work to design and implement processes and frameworks to meet evolving security requirements.
Domain : Security Architecture and Engineering
Q15 : What within a system, is a holistic collection of hardware, software and other firmware, that provides and enforces system security policies?
A. Security Kernel
B. Virtualization
C. Trusted Computing Base
D. Hypervisor
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
A trusted computing base is an overarching collective of hardware, software, and firmware within the system that not only protect the system itself but also enforce the security policies configured/defined in the system
Option A is incorrect. Security kernel is a subsection of Trusted Computing base that is responsible for the monitoring security compliance
Option B is incorrect. Virtualization refers to simulated environments (e.g. VM, OS, Storage), that are managed centrally for scalability
Option C is correct. Trusted computing base references all components of a system including OS, hardware, software, and other firmware, where security is configured and enforced across all components. Some components are assigned specific security tasks (e.g. USB drive protection).
Option D is incorrect. Hypervisor is a virtualization concept that allows for division and management of virtual machines (host)
Domain : Communication and Network Security
Question16 : To which layer(s) of the OSI model, is the Network Access layer of the TCP/IP model correlated to?
A. Data Link and Physical
B. Network Layer
C. Presentation Layer
D. Transport Layer
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
The Network Access Layer of the TCP/IP model is correlated to the Data Link and Physical Layer of the OSI model. There are 7 layers on the OSI model and 4 layers in the TCP/IP model
| OSI Model | TCP/IP Model |
| Application | Application |
| Presentation | |
| Session | |
| Transport | Host to Host |
| Network | Internet |
| Data Link | Network Access |
| Physical |
Option A is correct. The physical connectivity (NIC Cards and drivers), and the Data Link (LAN or WAN frames, and protocols such as ARP, RARP, etc.), are mapped to the network access layer of the TCP/IP Model
Option B is incorrect.
Option C is incorrect.
Option D is incorrect.
Domain : Communication and Network Security
Q17 : You create an excel document and share with several of your colleagues. Regardless of the excel processing programs on your colleagues’ computers, each computer can understand the file, open it, and present it to the respective user. Which layer in the OSI model supports this ability?
A. Application Layer
B. Presentation Layer
C. Data Link Layer
D. Transport Layer
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
The presentation layer in the OSI model interprets the incoming file/data and presents it to the user.
Option A is incorrect. The application layer includes protocols such as SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol), HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol), etc. to provide file transmission, message exchange and terminal session services
Option B is correct. The Presentation layer receives data from the application layer and transfers to a format that all receiving computers can understand / interpret. The layer does not focus on the meaning of the data, but the syntax and format of the data. Also handles data compression and encryption issues.
Option C is incorrect. Data Link layer is responsible for translating the data packets into LAN or WAN technology binary formats for line transmission. The technologies have different data transmission requirements that is handled by the data link layer
Option D is incorrect. The protocols at the transport layer handle end to end transmission and segmentation of a data stream. The protocols at this layer include TCP, UDP, SSL, etc.
Domain : Communication and Network Security
Q18 : What happens when an attacker sends a succession of packets generated when a client starts a TCP connection to a server, with the goal to overwhelm the system posting as legitimate traffic?
A. Session Hijacking
B. Interdomain routing
C. SYN flooding
D. Teredo
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Overwhelming the server with SYN packets is referred to as SYN flooding, with the goal of making the system non-responsive.
Option A is incorrect. Session hijacking refers to method that allows attacker to take control of a session between two computers
Option B is incorrect. Interdomain routing relates to the ability of dividing a network into various subnets based on subnet masking
Option C is correct. In SYN Flooding the attacker floods the receiving system with data packets that pose as legitimate traffic, with the goal of making the system unavailable.
Option D is incorrect. Teredo refers to mechanism of migrating from IPV4 to IPV6
Domain : Communication and Network Security
Q19 : What component of fiber optic cables refer to usage of large glass cores that can carry large amounts of data over short distances?
A. Crosstalk
B. Multimode based transfer
C. Single mode transfer
D. Light-emitting diode
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Optical fiber cable in multimode, can carry large amounts of data over short distances
Option A is incorrect. Crosstalk refers to overlapping of electrical signals, causing a degradation in quality of transmission
Option B is correct. Usage of multimode fiber optic to transfer data can enable sending of large volumes of data. The mode is used for short distances only due to high attenuation levels
Option C is incorrect. Usage of single mode fiber optic is used for transferring data over long distances at high speed. This mode has low attenuation levels
Option D is incorrect. Light emitting diode refers to the ability of converting electrical signal into light signal
Domain : Communication and Network Security
Q20 : Which protocol is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle and denial-of-service attacks, and is used for controlling the messages between the hosts and the gateway?
A. DHCP (Dynamic host configuration protocol)
B. DNS (Domain Naming Service)
C. Ping (Packet Internet Groper)
D. ICMP (Internet Control message Protocol)
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
ICMP (Internet Control message Protocol) is used for controlling the messages between hosts and gateway, and is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle and denial-of-service attacks
Option A is incorrect. DHCP (Dynamic host configuration protocol) enables assignment of dynamic IP to hosts. It however has limited security making the host and server vulnerable
Option B is incorrect. DNS (Domain Naming Service) is a service responsible for translating fully qualified names (e.g., www.microsoft.com) into an IP address for internet transfer.
Option C is incorrect. Ping (Packet Internet Groper) is a program used to validate the availability and responsiveness of a host on the network. It uses the ICMP packet to do so.
Option D is correct. ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is used for controlling the messages between hosts and gateway and is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle and denial-of-service attacks. It is also used to by services such as Ping and traceroute to validate hosts on the network
Domain : Communication and Network Security
Q21 : Susan is responsible for management to data centers across many regions and wants to ensure her data facilities are linked. What protocol/standard will Susan want to deploy to ensure data is transferred over WAN (Wide Area Network), and the internet as necessary?
A. DNP3 (Distributed Networking Protocol)
B. DNS (Domain Naming Service)
C. FCoE (Fiber Channel over Ethernet)
D. iSCSI (Internet Small Computer Based Interface)
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
iSCSI (Internet Small Computer Based Interface) is an IP protocol-based standard used to transfer data over WAN (Wide Area Network) and the internet
Option A is incorrect. DNP3 is a multi layer protocol used for communicating between SCADA (Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition) systems
Option B is incorrect. DNS (Domain Naming Service) is a service responsible for translating fully qualified names (e.g., www.microsoft.com) into an IP address for internet transfer.
Option C is incorrect. FCoE (Fibre Channel over Ethernet) is a lightweight encapsulation protocol used for supporting data travel over short distances within a data center.
Option D is correct. iSCSI (Internet Small Computer Based Interface) is an IP protocol-based standard, that links storage facilities and enables transfer data over WAN (Wide Area Network) and the internet as necessary. As it is IP based, it can carry SCSI commands over the internet to and support data storages over long distances.
Domain : Communication and Network Security
Q22 : Which protocol enables VoIP (Voice over internet protocol) based systems to communicate seamlessly, regardless of the identity directories that the underlying infrastructure may support?
A. MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching)
B. SIP (Session Initiation Protocol)
C. FCoE (fiber Channel over Ethernet)
D. LDAP (Lightweight directory access protocol)
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
SIP (Session Initiation Protocol) is a recognized standard that enables VoIP technology-based devices to communicate with one another.
Option A is incorrect. MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching) is a wide area networking protocol that controls where and how traffic is routed on the network. It finds the destination router and find the path to the router
Option B is correct. VoIP devices utilize SIP (Session Initiation Protocol) to communicate with one another. Voice notes are translated into data packets, transferred over the internet, and converted back to voice notes. The packets are compressed for faster transfer
Option C is incorrect. FCoE (Fibre Channel over Ethernet) is a lightweight encapsulation protocol used for supporting data travel over short distances within a data center.
Option D is incorrect. LDAP (Lightweight directory access protocol) is a client/server-based query protocol supporting services such as Active Directory. It provides weak authentication
Domain : Communication and Network Security
Q23 : Which networking technology enables the fastest device to device connectivity, without the requirement for an access point?
A. Zigbee
B. Wifi-Direct
C. Bluetooth
D. Wifi
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Device to device connectivity through Wifi-Direct, provides the fastest connectivity. While other technologies such as Zigbee and Bluetooth enable such communication, they are slower than Wifi Direct. Wifi requires an access point.
Option A is incorrect. Zigbee uses 2.4 GHZ frequency to support short-range applications
Option B is correct. Device to device connectivity via Wifi-Direct is best suited for high-speed requirements. It is important to note however, that with a direct connection you are more vulnerable to attackers compromising the link, given usage of legacy protocols such as WPS.
Option C is incorrect. Bluetooth supports low range device to device connectivity, but consumes more power than Zigbee
Option D is incorrect. Wifi requires an access point with multiple devices connecting to it. It requires more power than Zigbee and Bluetooth
Domain : Communication and Network Security
Q24 : In which type of wireless attack does the hacker leverage radio signals issued by endpoints in a circular pattern, to achieve penetration into the network?
A. Temporal Key Integrity Attack
B. WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy Protocol) attack
C. “Parking Lot” Attack
D. Shared Key Authentication Flaw
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
In a “Parking Lot” attack, the radio signals issued by endpoints are compromised by the hacker to enter the network.
Option A is incorrect. Temporal Key Integrity Attack targets decoding bytes of data, one at a time using multiple replays. The hacker observes the response and can then assess pattern to decode packets
Option B is incorrect. In a WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy Protocol) attack, the weakness in the underlying RC4 algorithm is exploited to compromise the confidentiality and integrity of traffic passing through wireless LAN
Option C is correct. Endpoints relay circular radio signals which for the most part surpass intended boundaries they are meant to cover (including walls within buildings and floors). The hacker takes advantage of the emissions (e.g., by sitting in a “parking lot”) to compromise the wireless connection and gain access to network
Option D is incorrect. In Shared Key Authentication Flaw, the hacker exploits both the challenge (by the access point), and the cipher response (by the authenticating client), as they are in plain text. The hacker then gains access to the network
Domain : Communication and Network Security
Q25 : Choose the right combination by carefully reading the statements below
Statement 1: In static packet filtering, each packet is assessed in context of its session to make decisions.
Statement 2: In dynamic packet filtering auto adjustments to the rule can be made to accommodate legitimate traffic.
Statement 3: In Static packet filtering, static rules cannot be temporarily changed by firewall to accommodate for legitimate traffic
Statement 4: Dynamic packet filtering includes stateful inspection of each packet to block malicious traffic that would otherwise appear legitimate
A. Statement 1: True, Statement 2: False, Statement 3: False, Statement 4: True
B. Statement 1: False, Statement 2: True, Statement 3: True, Statement 4: False
C. Statement 1: False, Statement 2: True, Statement 3: True, Statement 4: True
D. Statement 1: False, Statement 2: False, Statement 3: False, Statement 4: True
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Static filtering examines each packet without any context, and rules cannot be temporarily changed by the firewall to accommodate traffic. In dynamic packet filtering each packet is assessed with its context (stateful) and automated adjustments can be made to accommodate for traffic
Option A is incorrect.
Option B is incorrect.
Option D is incorrect.
Summary
We hope that you were able to answer all the questions asked here correctly at first glance. If yes, then you are already ahead in the preparation of the Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Certification Exam, but still a certain extent of practice is always needed. We still have many more Practice Tests carrying such unique CISSP certification questions, that will help you pass the certification in the first attempt. Keep Learning with us!
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