In today’s interconnected digital landscape, the threat landscape continues to evolve, making cybersecurity a paramount concern for organizations and individuals alike. As the demand for skilled cybersecurity professionals continues to rise, certifications play a crucial role in validating expertise and ensuring the competency of professionals in this field.
One such esteemed certification is the Certified in Cybersecurity Certification, which offers a comprehensive and standardized framework for cybersecurity excellence. The Certified in Cybersecurity (CC) certification serves as a testament to an individual’s expertise in cybersecurity principles, practices, and technologies, instilling confidence in their ability to safeguard critical assets and combat emerging threats.
Here are our newly updated 25 Free questions on the Certified in Cybersecurity (CC) certification exam which are very similar to the practice test as well as the real exam. Whether you’re preparing for the certification exam or simply looking to assess your cybersecurity expertise, these Certified in Cybersecurity (CC) questions will provide valuable insights into the key concepts, skills, and best practices associated with this certification.
Let’s dig in!
Exam Format for Certified in Cybersecurity Certification Exam
Top 25 Certified in Cybersecurity Certification Free Questions
The below listed Certified in Cybersecurity (CC) certification questions align with the latest syllabus and reflect the real-world relevance of the CC exam.
Whether you’re aiming to bridge knowledge gaps or enhance your cybersecurity expertise, this comprehensive list of CC questions will prove invaluable. By dedicating time to mastering these questions, you will be better equipped to approach the actual CC exam with confidence, ensuring a successful outcome on your first attempt.
Take advantage of this opportunity to upskill and solidify your understanding of key concepts in the cybersecurity field with these thoughtfully crafted CC exam simulator questions.
Domain: Network Security
Question 1: Which one is the most common security threat with IoT devices?
A. Logical Network Segmentation
B. Lack of device management
C. Lack of system update against a new vulnerability
D. Backdoor
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Lack of system updates, when a new vulnerability is found, is the most common issue with IoT devices. In the case of most embedded systems with the programming directly on the chips, it would require physical replacement of the chip to patch the vulnerability. For many systems, it may not be cost-effective to have someone visit each one to replace a chip, or manually connect to the chip to reprogram it.
Option A is incorrect since logical network segmentation is the best way to isolate IoT environments from other devices on the network and it is not a security threat.
Options B and D are the correct security threats against IoT devices but except for Option C, the other two options do not have very common security against most IoT devices hence if we have to choose the most common security threat in IoT devices then Option C is correct, and Option B & D are incorrect.
Reference:
ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter 4-Module 3: Understand Network Security Infrastructure
Domain: Network Security
Question 2: Which of the below is a challenge in micro-segmentation in cyber security?
A. Reducing the attack surface
B. Easy to configure and map to a business need
C. Secure Critical Applications
D. Improves Regulatory Compliance Posture
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Deployment of network-based micro-segmentation is not very granular because it is extremely difficult to map business segmentation needs to networking constructs.
Option A is incorrect since micro-segmentation reduces the attack surface.
Option B is correct since configuration of micro-segmentation and map to network based on business requirements is a big challenge in micro-segmentation.
Option C is incorrect since micro-segmentation helps to secure critical applications.
Option D is incorrect since micro segmentation helps to improve regulatory compliance also.
Reference:
ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter 4-Module 3: Understand Network Security Infrastructure
Domain: Network Security
Question 3: Which type of security control micro-segmentation supports?
A. Logical rules
B. Physical rules
C. Logical and physical rules
D. Network-defined rules
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
These are logical rules, not physical rules, and do not require additional hardware or manual interaction with the device (that is, the administrator can apply the rules to various machines without having to physically touch each device or the cables connecting it to the networked environment).
Option A is correct since micro segmentation is based on logical rules where admin is not required to touch the system physically to implement these rules.
Option B is incorrect since micro segmentation does not require touching the system physically to implement these rules.
Option C is incorrect as mentioned in options A and B.
Option D is incorrect since there is no keyword or methodology named network defined rules.
Reference:
ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter 4-Module 3: Understand Network Security Infrastructure
Domain: Network Security
Question 4: Which of the below methods is best for hosting streaming video files for the company’s remote users where we can ensure that the data is protected while it’s streaming?
A. Symmetric encryption
B. Hashing
C. Asymmetric encryption
D. VLANs
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Symmetric encryption offers confidentiality of data with the least amount of processing overhead, which makes it the preferred means of protecting streaming data.
Option A is correct since symmetric encryption is best for secure streaming communication.
Option B is incorrect since hashing would not provide confidentiality of the data.
Option C is incorrect since asymmetric encryption provides more overhead compared to symmetric encryption hence it would not be the best choice.
Option D is incorrect since VLANs are useful for the logical segmentation of networks, but do not serve a purpose of streaming data to remote users.
Reference:
ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter 4-Module 3: Understand Network Security Infrastructure
Domain: Network Security
Question 5: Which of the below technologies does not guarantee a network’s security?
A. VLAN
B. Firewall
C. IDS/IPS
D. VPN
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
VLANs do not guarantee a network’s security. Most of the time that traffic cannot be intercepted because communication within a VLAN is restricted to member devices. However, there are attacks that allow a malicious user to see traffic from other VLANs (so-called VLAN hopping).
Option A is correct since VLAN alone does not guarantee a network’s security; rather VLAN technology is used for improving the overall security of a network.
Options B, C and D are incorrect since Firewall, IDS/IPS, and VPN provides network security.
Reference:
ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter 4-Module 3: Understand Network Security Infrastructure
Domain: Network Security
Question 6: Which of the below VLAN configurations could be a threat to network security?
A. Separate the data center from all other network traffic
B. VOIP and the rest of the network are using different VLANs
C. A VLAN is configured to communicate with other VLANs
D. NAC (Network Access Control) systems use VLANs to control whether devices connect to the corporate network or to a guest network
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Main purpose of using VLANs is micro segmentation. If two VLANs are talking to each other then segmentation is not there and if one vlan is hacked by an external hacker, he would be able to get access to the entire network.
Options A and B are incorrect since in both cases VLAN is providing proper network segmentation.
Option C is correct since network segmentation is not happening here and this could lead to network security threat.
Option D is not correct since proper network segmentation is in place here.
Reference:
ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter 4-Module 3: Understand Network Security Infrastructure
Domain: Network Security
Question 7: Which of the below technologies/protocols does not necessarily provide encryption?
A. SSH
B. TLS
C. SSL
D. VPN
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
VPN is not necessarily an encrypted tunnel. It is simply a point-to-point connection between two hosts that allows them to communicate. Secure communications can be provided but only if the security protocols have been selected and correctly configured to provide a trusted path over an untrusted network
Options A, B and C are incorrect since TLS (Transport Layer Security), SSH (Secure Shell), SSL (Secure Socket Layer) as the name implies, provide encryption.
Option D is correct since VPN doesn’t give a guarantee of encrypted traffic. It can provide encryption using security protocols but not necessary.
Reference:
ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter 4-Module 3: Understand Network Security Infrastructure
Domain: Network Security
Question 8: Which of the below technologies/devices can help to limit the broadcast traffic within a network?
A. Firewall
B. VLAN
C. IDS
D. Switch
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
In large corporate networks, VLANs can be used to limit the amount of broadcast traffic within a network. This is most common in networks of more than 1,000 devices and may be separated by department, location/building, or any other criteria as needed.
Option A is incorrect since a firewall can be used to block the traffic, but it is not suitable to limit the broadcast traffic within a network.
Option B is correct since VLANs are generally used to limit the amount of broadcast traffic within a network.
Option C is not correct since IDS (intrusion Detection System) is used to detect any intruder in a corporate network and not for limiting the traffic.
Option D is not correct since switch is not used for packet or traffic filtering
Reference:
ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter 4-Module 3: Understand Network Security Infrastructure
Domain: Network Security
Question 9: While securing data from the public, an organization employs two-factor authentication (2FA), role-based access control, tokenization, and air-gapped networks. Which concept of cyber security is being applied here by this organization?
A. Defense in depth
B. Data security
C. Logical access control
D. Security through obscurity
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Different methods of cyber security are used here which falls under the defense in depth category.
Option A is correct since multiple ways of data protection is used here which is called the defense in-depth concept.
Option B is not correct since only data security is not used, we can see logical access control and other concepts are also used.
Option C is not correct since logical access is controlled but using different methods so only logical access control is not the right concept.
Option D is not correct security through obscurity (STO) means vulnerability will not be exposed publicly due to the design architecture of the system and on that idea, the system will remain unimpacted. However, this is not the case in the above question hence option D is wrong.
Reference:
ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter 4-Module 2: Understand Network (Cyber) Threats and Attacks
Domain: Security Operations
Question 10: What is the right time to plan for security?
A. Pre-deployment
B. Post-deployment
C. Testing Phase
D. Monitoring Phase
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: From the very beginning, we need to plan for security, even before the data is introduced into the network.
Option A is correct because a robust security plan should be in place before data is going to deploy in the network so that each byte of data would be secured.
Options B & D are incorrect because once data is entered into the network it would be exposed to the outside world and delaying a security plan can compromise the data.
Option C is not correct since it depends on when data is entered into the network. The option doesn’t give a clear picture of where the testing phase is going on.
Reference:
ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter 5-Module 1: Understand Network (Cyber) Threats and Attacks
Domain: Network Security
Question 11: To ensure the availability of a data center, it is best to plan for both resilience and ___________ of the elements in the facility.
A. Uniqueness
B. Security
C. Redundancy
D. Incident response
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Availability is guaranteed by ensuring that elements of the data center are replicated in case any given individual element fails.
Option A is incorrect since it is the opposite of redundancy because if any single element is unique, that could become a single point of failure and affect the overall operation.
Option B is incorrect; while security is required but not an integral part of availability while resilience & redundancy is a MUST-have requirement for the availability of an element in the data center.
Option C is correct since resilience & redundancy is a MUST-have requirement for an element in the data center.
Option D is incorrect since planning for incident response is not related to the availability of data center elements.
Reference:
ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter 4-Module 3: Understand Network Security Infrastructure
Domain: Network Security
Question 12: How many temperature sensors are required to measure the actual operating temperature of the environment in a Data Center Rack?
A. Four
B. Three
C. Two
D. One
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
It is recommended that a rack have three temperature sensors, positioned at the top, middle and bottom of the rack, to measure the actual operating temperature of the environment.
Options A, C and D are incorrect since it is recommended to have Three temperature sensors, positioned at the top, middle, and bottom.
Option B is correct as explained above.
Reference:
ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter 4-Module 3: Understand Network Security Infrastructure
Domain: Network Security
Question 13: To prevent fire mashups in the data center, fire suppression systems are required. Which of the below fire suppression technique is best for the data center?
A. Sprinkler System
B. Dry Water Pipes
C. Overhead Water Tank
D. Fire extinguisher
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
The Fire mashup risk can be reduced somewhat by using a dry-pipe system that keeps the water out of the pipes over the data center. These systems have a valve outside the data center and will be operated only when a sensor indicates a fire is present. Since water is not held in the pipes above the data center, the risk of leaks is reduced.
Option A is incorrect since the sparkler system is very much useful to stop spreading fire but at the same time it will damage the electronic equipment, hence it is not advisable to install a sprinkler system inside the data center.
Option B is correct since dry pipes are located inside the data center but without water hence leakage issue won’t be there, and those pipes would be activated only in that case if fire is present in the data center whereas other solutions like sprinkler system would become active when fire is present at any location of the building and can damage the electronic equipment.
Option C is incorrect since keeping the overhead water tank may cause leakage issues in the long term which will again damage the equipment.
Option D is incorrect since traditional fire extinguishers will cause irreparable damage to servers. Water and foam-based fire extinguishers can also conduct electricity
Reference:
ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter 4-Module 3: Understand Network Security Infrastructure
NOTE: – Special fire extinguishers are also available which are best for data center, but CC exam guide doesn’t talk about it rather it says dry water pipe is best solution. So, in case exam has given an option something like mentioned in below link then choose those fire extinguisher as best option otherwise please choose dry water pipe as best option.
Domain: Network Security
Question 14: When choosing a cable type for a data center, one should look for the lowest attenuation. Which of the below cable types have the highest attenuation?
A. Glass Cable
B. Optical Fiber
C. Copper Wires
D. Twisted Cables
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Attenuation means the loss or reduction in the amplitude or strength of a signal as it passes along its length. As the signal travels through, some of the signal will be absorbed which is highest in comparison with other cable types.
Option A is incorrect since Glass Cable is having the lowest attenuation and best fit for the data center.
Option B is incorrect since Optical fibers are also a very good conductor of signals compared to copper wire.
Option C is correct since copper cables are having the highest attenuation.
Option D is incorrect since coaxial cables are also copper wires but have less attenuation.
Reference:
ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter 4-Module 3: Understand Network Security Infrastructure
Domain: Network Security
Question 15: When choosing a cable type for a data center, someone should look for the lowest attenuation. Which of the below cable type is best for the data center where the signal needs to travel from one rack to far located last rack?
A. Glass Cable
B. Optical Fiber
C. Copper Wires
D. Twisted Cables
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
Glass cable has the lowest attenuation, meaning the loss or reduction in the amplitude or strength of a signal as it passes along its length would be less in glass cables.
Option A is correct since Glass Cable is having lowest attenuation and best fit for the data center.
Option B is incorrect since Optical fibers are also very good conductors of signals compared to the copper wire but have higher attenuation compared to glass fiber, so it is 2nd best choice but not the first.
Option C is incorrect since copper cables are having highest attenuation so not the best fit in a data center for long-distance communication, however for the lowest distance like a switch to a server, copper cables are preferred because of their low cost.
Option D is incorrect since coaxial cables are also copper wires but have less attenuation compared to traditional cables, however, having higher attenuation compared to glass cables or optical fiber cables.
Reference:
ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter 4-Module 3: Understand Network Security Infrastructure
Domain: Network Security
Question 16: Which of the below agreements needs to be signed to establish a common legal term that establishes a “conditional agreement” between client and Vendor?
A. MOU
B. MOA
C. NDA
D. SLA
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
A memorandum of agreement (MOA) or cooperative is a document written between parties saying the client & vendor to work together on an agreed-upon project or meet an agreed-upon objective. It is a written understanding of the agreement between two or more parties. The MOA can also be a legal document that holds the parties responsible for their commitment to work.
Option A is incorrect since MOU stands for memorandum of understanding which tends to be used for simple common-cause agreements which are not legally binding.
Option B is correct since MOA is similar to MOU but establishes common legal terms that establish a “conditional agreement” between two parties.
Option C is incorrect Since NDA (non-disclosure agreement) is a legally binding agreement but not for business understanding rather it is related to non-disclosure of confidential information.
Option D is incorrect since SLA (service level agreement) defines the expectations and level of quality that a client or customer receives from a SaaS vendor.
Reference:
ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter 4-Module 3: Understand Network Security Infrastructure
Domain: Network Security
Question 17: Tracy, an owner of a Tech startup has outsourced his infra management to an MSP (Managed Service Provider) Company. Which document needs to be signed by a Managed Service provider to protect the Client’s confidential agreement?
A. NDA
B. SLA
C. MOA
D. MOU
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
An NDA (non-disclosure agreement) is a legally binding agreement between a client and vendor that says both parties cannot share confidential information with the public.
Option A is correct since NDA legally protects a party or parties’ confidential information to become public.
Option B is incorrect since SLA (service level agreement) defines the expectations and level of quality that a client or customer receives from a SaaS vendor.
Options C & D are incorrect since MOA & MOU are related to a mutual understanding with or without legal bindings but not related to non-disclosure of secret information.
Reference:
ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter 4-Module 3: Understand Network Security Infrastructure
Domain: Network Security
Question 18: Which of the following is required to be protected by redundant power?
A. HVAC
B. UPS
C. Utility
D. Generator
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
HVAC is a data center cooling unit that needs to be protected by a redundant power supply, which is provided by the other three options.
Option A is correct since HVAC, a data center cooling unit needs to be protected by a redundant power supply because if the HVAC is out of service due to some reason and the data center temperature goes up and beyond the threshold limit then it may create serious damage to data center equipment.
Options B, C & D are incorrect since these options are the source of redundant power supply and don’t need to be protected by redundant power.
Reference:
ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter 4-Module 3: Understand Network Security Infrastructure
Domain: Network Security
Question 19: Being a CSC (cloud service customer) Jhulan opted for a bunch of server instances and configured them to run her own software. Is this an example of a cloud deployment model?
A. SecaaS
B. PaaS
C. SaaS
D. IaaS
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Purchasing server instances from CSP (cloud service provider) and installing an OS/software to run your own application is an example of IaaS i.e., infrastructure as a service model.
Option A is incorrect since SecaaS is security as a service and doesn’t provide any specific infra for running software.
Option B is incorrect since these options are a source of redundant power supply and don’t need to be protected by redundant power.
Option C is incorrect since PaaS provides a flexibility to build your own application, deploy it and host it, while the ask was opted for some server instances and run your own application. Hence, PaaS is not the right answer.
Option D is correct since IaaS (Infrastructure as a service) provides flexibility to opt for server instances and configure them to run your own software.
Reference:
ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter 4-Module-3- Understand Network Security Infrastructure
Domain: Network Security
Question 20: As per NIST SP 800-145 which one is not the cloud characteristics?
A. Ubiquitous
B. Convenient
C. On-demand
D. Dedicated resource pool
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
The cloud model provides a shared pool of configurable computing resources such as network, server, storage etc. hence dedicated resource pool is not a correct answer.
Options A, B and C are incorrect since Ubiquitous, Convenient & On-demand are features of the Cloud model.
Option D is correct since the cloud model provides a shared resource pool rather than dedicated resources.
Reference:
ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter 4-Module-3- Understand Network Security Infrastructure
Domain: Network Security
Question 21: Which of the below features provides redundancy in the cloud model?
A. Different shared resources
B. Different deployment models
C. Different availability zones
D. Power backups
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Cloud service providers have different availability zones so that if one goes down, activities can shift to another. Customers don’t have to maintain a whole data center with all the redundancy that requires rather a cloud service provider does that for customers.
Option A is incorrect since different shared resources such as networking, servers, etc. don’t provide cloud redundancy.
Option B is incorrect since different deployment models don’t provide cloud redundancy.
Option C is correct since different availability zones provide cloud redundancy and if any one of the availability zones go down, so in that region cloud customers would be shifted to another availability zone automatically without any impact.
Option D is incorrect since different shared resources such as networking, server etc. doesn’t provide cloud redundancy.
Reference:
ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter 4-Module-3- Understand Network Security Infrastructure
Domain: Network Security
Question 22: Which of the below can be a disadvantage to working with an MCSP (managed cloud service provider)?
A. Optimization
B. Migration
C. Infrastructure Management
D. Security & Transparency
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
Cloud MSPs, like public cloud services, use a multi-tenant model. This means that providers are responsible for many customers at once and that the data of all customers is stored in one location. Your system might be affected by another customer’s provider not having strict security rules in place. For example, if an MCSP is handling a migration and accidentally uploads the wrong data to your storage then it would be a serious issue. Another important factor is transparency, you should be aware of what security compliance/audit/regulatory certifications your MSCP has which will prove its transparency in providing the right service.
Option A is incorrect since optimization is an advantage provided by MCSP.
Option B is incorrect since managing migration to the cloud is an advantage provided by MCSP.
Option C is incorrect since resource management which includes infrastructure as well is an advantage provided by MCSP.
Option D is correct since the MCSP process can pose a security risk as mentioned in the explanation section.
Reference:
ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter 4-Module-3- Understand Network Security Infrastructure
Domain: Network Security
Question 23: Which one of the below terms & conditions mentioned in an SLA is not related to cloud security?
A. Data Location
B. Data Access
C. Data Portability
D. Change Management Process
Correct Answer: C
Explanation:
Data portability is related to data migration from one cloud to another and not related to security.
Option A is incorrect since data location is related to security controls.
Option B is incorrect since data access is related to security controls.
Option C is correct since data portability is related to migrating the data from one cloud to another cloud like AWS to GCP etc. and not specifically related to security.
Option D is correct since the change management process is also related to Information security.
Reference:
ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter 4-Module-3- Understand Network Security Infrastructure
Domain: Network Security
Question 24: Which of the below definitions represents the DMZ (Demilitarized Zone) in IT Security?
A. A DMZ is a network area that is designed to be accessed by outside visitors but is still isolated from the private network of the organization
B. A DMZ is a physically protected area in an IT organization where outside visitors are allowed with permission
C. A DMZ is a network area that is designed to be accessed by outside visitors but is still not used for hosting public web, email, files, and other resource servers
D. A DMZ is a network area that is designed to be accessed by outside visitors which includes organizations’ private networks
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A DMZ is a network area that is designed to be accessed by outside visitors but is still isolated from the private network of the organization. The DMZ is often the host of public web, email, files, and other resource servers.
Option A is correct since DMZ is a network area that allows outside visitors to access the network without touching the company’s private network.
Option B is incorrect since DMZ is not a physically protected area.
Option C is incorrect since DMZ is a network area that allows outside visitors to access the network which includes hosting public web, emails, files, etc.
Option D is incorrect since DMZ is a network area that allows outside visitors to access the network but without accessing the company’s private network.
Reference:
ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter 4-Module-3- Understand Network Security Infrastructure
Domain: Network Security
Question 25: Which one of the below is the right statement about defense in depth?
Defense in depth uses a layered approach when designing the security posture of an organization
Defense in depth is good for administrative and technological controls but not for physical control
Defense in depth provides good physical control but not administrative and technological controls
Defense in depth uses a single-layer approach when designing the security posture of an organization
Correct Answer: A
Explanation:
A DMZ is a network area that is designed to be accessed by outside visitors but is still isolated from the private network of the organization. The DMZ is often the host of public web, email, files, and other resource servers.
Option A is correct since defense in depth is a layered approach that takes care of all types of security controls including physical, administrative, and technological.
Option B is incorrect since defense in depth takes care of all types of security controls which includes physical, administrative, and technological.
Option C is incorrect since defense in depth takes care of all types of security controls which includes physical, administrative, and technological.
Option D is incorrect since defense in depth is not a single-layer approach.
Reference:
ISC2 Self-Paced Course – Chapter 4-Module-3- Understand Network Security Infrastructure
Conclusion
Hope the aforementioned selection of questions for the Certified in Cybersecurity (CC) certification has proven helpful to you. The CC certification is an essential starting point for individuals aspiring to build a successful career in the cybersecurity field, regardless of their level of expertise.
To maximize your chances of success, it is highly recommended that you thoroughly cover all the objectives of the Certified in Cybersecurity (CC) certification exam. This will ensure you approach the exam with confidence and increase your likelihood of passing it on your first attempt.
To further enhance your preparation, Whizlabs offers a range of resources, including practice tests, video courses, hands-on labs, and a sandbox environment. These resources are regularly updated to align with the latest Certified in Cybersecurity (CC) certification exam content and will provide you with valuable insights and practical experience.
Embrace the opportunity to strengthen your cybersecurity expertise, solidify your understanding of the CC certification objectives, and practice until you feel fully prepared to tackle the real exam.
If you have any doubt about this blog post, contact us, experts, today!
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